Friday, June 11, 2010

ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 8

1)What term describes the failure to perform a pre-defined command, a deviation between the expected and actual behavior?

a)Error
b)Fault
c)Failure
d)Fault Masking

2)What is the first step in the testing process?

a.specification
b.evaluating exit criteria and reporting
c.execution
d.planning

3) What are appraisal costs?

a.All testing costs and the costs of everything else the company does to look for errors.
b.Everything the company spends to prevent software and documentation errors.
c.All costs of coping with errors discovered during development and testing.
d.All costs of coping with errors discovered, typically by your customers, after the product is released.

4) Which is a form of static testing?

a. Appraisal
b. Walkthrough
c. Assessment
d. Gap Analysis

5) What is another name(s) for black-box testing?

a. Functional Testing
b. Specification-based Testing
c. Structure-based Testing
d. Behavioral Testing

1) A and D
2) A, B, C
3) A, B, and D
4) C and D


6) Structural tests find bugs in what low-level operations?

a. Lines of code
b. Data flow and integrity
c. Database schemas
d. User interface

1) A and C
2) A, B, and C
3) A and D
4) B and D

7) What term is used to describe the number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or system?

a. Defect Size
b. Defect Detection Percentage
c. Defect Density
d. Defect Measurement

8) What is the definition of load testing?

a. Testing the application’s response and adaptation to changing levels of activity
b. Testing capacity limits on such variables as input volume or number of concurrent processes
c. Testing conducted to evaluate a system or component at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements
d. Testing of response time, throughput rates, and total job run times

9) Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team?

a.All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes
b.The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test
c.Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times
d.The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release

10) What describes functional testing?

a.sometimes has the same meaning as behavioral tests
b.simultaneously designing, developing, and executing tests
c.must be augmented with other test approaches to deal with potentially important quality risks such as performance, load, capacity, and volume
d.A & C

11) What term describes how a program transitions from one state to another?
a.Data Flow
b.Internal Flow
c.Control Flow
d.Structural Flow

12) Which of the use case criteria(s) satisfy the user goals of the primary actors?

a.Choose the system boundary
b.Finding Primary Actors
c.Finding Primary Goals
d.A, B, and C

13) What test document contains all the information about a specific test case, including requirements and the modules to be tested?

a. Test plan
b. Test case specification
c. Test design specification
d. Test procedure


14) What testing tool is used to generate test inputs or the actual tests from requirements, from a graphical user interface, from design models, or from code?

a. Test execution tools
b. Test harness tools
c. Test design tools
d. Modeling tools

15) Which is an objective of a pilot project?

a.Assessment of organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses
b.Defining usage guidelines
c.Identification of opportunities for an improved test process supported by tools
d.Learn more detail about the tool

16) Which is a characteristic of test management tools?

a. Support the management of tests and the testing activities carried out
b. Store information about versions and builds of software and testware
c. Support developers, testers, and QA personnel in finding defects before dynamic testing
d. Manipulate databases, files, or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests

17) The following code segment contains a potential “divide by 0” error.

J=50
K=1
while (N>=10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N 1
end loop

Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?

a. Source code inspection
b. Boundary testing
c. Compilation of the source code
d. Condition testing

18) What term describes testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and the interaction between integrated components?

a. System Testing
b. Component Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. Interface Testing

19) What term is used to describe the act of locating and removing faults (bugs) from a system/product?
a.Testing
b.Fault Masking
c.Debugging
d.Decoding



20) Which of the following types of defects are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing?

a.deviations from standards
b.requirement defects
c.design defects
d.incorrect interface specifications

1) A and B
2) A, B, and D
3) C and D
4) A, B, C, and D


21) What term describes the interactions between actors, including users and the system, which produce a result of value to a system user?

a. Use Case
b. Test Case
c. Test Case Specification
d. Input/Output

22) What is the definition of failure costs?

a. Costs incurred because faults and deficiencies in a product remain undetected
b. Costs incurred because customer is dissatisfied with the product
c. Costs incurred due to lack of testing staff
d. Costs incurred due to poorly written requirements

23) Which of the following tools offer support more appropriate for developers?

a.Static Analysis tools
b.Test harness/unit test framework tools
c.Test data preparation tools
d.Test execution tools

1)A and C
2)A, B, and C
3)C and D
4)A, B, and D

24) What term is used to define the chance of an event, hazard, threat or situation occurring and its undesirable consequences, a potential problem?

a. Defect
b. Risk
c. Fault
d. Failure

25) Which of the following are types of black-box techniques?

a. Equivalence partitioning
b. Boundary input evaluation
c. Decision table testing
d. State transition testing

1) A and B
2) A and D
3) A, C, and D
4) C and D

26) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Testers at the component and integration level should be developers
b. Testers for risk-management should be test analysts
c. Testers at the acceptance test level should be business experts and users
d. Testers for operational acceptance testing should be operators

27) Which of the following are success factors for the deployment of the tool within an organization?

a.Rolling out the tool to the rest of the organization incrementally
b.Defining usage guidelines, implementing a way to learn lessons from tool use
c.Adapting and improving processes to fit with the use of the tool
d.Evaluation against clear requirements and objective criteria

1)A and C
2)B and D
3)A, B, and C
4)B, C, and D


28) What test tool simulates the environment in which the test object will run?

a.Test harness/unit test framework tool
b.Dynamic analysis tool
c.Monitoring tool
d.Coverage management tool

29) What test strategy is informal and non-structured?

a.Equivalence partitioning
b.Validation strategy
c.White box testing
d.Ad hoc testing

30) Which of these describes system testing?

a. Typically the least expensive and least time consuming level of testing
b. Often represents the bulk of the testing effort
c. Typically the third step in the “V” model testing process
d. Forms the basis of a regression test set

1) A
2) B
3) B, C, and D
4) C and D


31) What term(s) can also be used to describe an error condition?

a.Defect
b.Internal Fault
c.Failure
d.Bug

1)A
2)A and B
3)A, B, C
4)A, B, and D

32) What are the level(s) are commonly found in the V-Model?

a.system testing
b.component (unit) testing
c.acceptance testing
d.interface testing

1) A and B
2) A, B, and D
3) A, B, and C
4) A, B, C, and D

33) Which of the following are types of white-box techniques?

a. Decision testing
b. Boundary value analysis
c. Statement testing
d. Use case testing

1) A and B
2) A and C
3) A, C, and D
4) C and D

34) What is the definition of test coverage?

a. The degree, expressed as a percentage, to which a specified coverage item has been exercised by a test suite
b. A sequence of events (paths) in the execution through a component or system
c. An analysis method that determines which parts of the software have been executed by the test suite and which parts have not been executed
d. The percentage of decision outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite

35) What statement is true regarding stress testing tools?

a. They monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of simulated conditions
b. They analyze, verify, and report on usage of specific system resources, and give warnings of possible service problems
c. They test the components or part of a system by simulating the environment in which that test object will run
d. They evaluate a system or component at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements

36) What is the Cyclomatic Complexity of the code below?

public void ProcessPages()
{
while(nextPage !=true)
{
if((lineCount<=linesPerPage) && (status != Status.Cancelled) && (morePages == true))
{
//....
}
}
}

a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6

37) What is requirements-based testing?

a. A test method using descriptions of business processes to design test cases
b. A test method based on objectives derived from requirements for the software component
c. A test method used to determine whether the system/software meets the specified usability requirements
d. A test method where test design and execution are conducted concurrently

38) What term is used to describe a test case without specific values for inputs and outputs; general conditions or classes are specified?

a.Physical(Concrete) test cases
b.Logical test cases
c.Boundary equivalent test cases
d.Blind Input test cases

39) Which of the following is an objective of an incident report?

a. Provide developers with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation,and correction as necessary
b. Provide test leaders a means of tracking the quality of the system under test and the progress of the testing
c. Provide ideas for test process improvement
d. Provide management with information regarding who is responsible for the defect

1) A
2) A and B
3) A, B, and C
4) A, B, C, and D

40) Which of the following answers reflect characteristics of test management tools?

a.Logging of test results and generation of progress reports
b.Improve the efficiency of testing activities by automating repetitive tasks
c.Independent version control or interface with an external configuration management tool
d.Assignment of actions to people (e.g. fix or confirmation test)

1)A and C
2)A, B, and D
3)B and D
4)B, C, and D

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