1. Condition coverage checks each of the ways that the condition can be made true or false.
a. True
b. False
2. Which of the items listed below is not a test case that covers certain test condition(s)?
a.A set of requirements
b.A set of input values
c.Execution preconditions
d.Execution post conditions
3. Which does not fall under test design specifications?
a.Specification identifier
b.Features to be tested
c.Approach requirements
d.Test identification
e.Test items
4. What will you put in the result column if the functionality under a test works correctly but causes an incorrectly spelled error message to be displayed?
a. Warn
b. Pass
c. Fail
d. None of the above
5. Behavioral testing involves a detailed understanding of:
a.The application domain
b.The business problem being solved
c.The mission the system serves
d.All of the above
6. Black box testing is:
a.Functional testing
b.Structural testing
c.Performance testing
d.Requirements testing
7. Which of these characteristics make a test not equivalent?
a. They all test the same thing
b. They involve the same input variables
c. They involve cases with small differences between inputs
d. They affect the same output variables
8. Anything that makes the program change its behavior marks the boundary between two classes?
a. True
b. False
9. A decision table is:
a.A table that shows what the program will do under any combination of relevant events
b.A table that shows the programs logic
c.Similar to a decision tree in the way that it lists information
d.All of the above
10. Which of the following is not appropriate for testing interactions between paths?
a.Path that people are particularly likely to follow
b.Choices at one menu level or data entry screen can affect the presentation of choices elsewhere
c.Test reaction to all combinations of valid and invalid inputs
d.Randomly select different paths in each test cycle
11. Select the criteria(s) that is not used for path testing:
a.Line coverage
b.Requirements coverage
c.Branch (or complete) coverage
d.Condition coverage
12. For which of the following test cases does test coverage analysis not assign the highest priority?
a.The ones that cover the most important quality risk
b.The ones that cover the requirements
c.The ones that cover the functions
d.The ones that cover conditions
13. Structural tests find bugs in low-level operations such as:
a.Lines of codes
b.Database schemas
c.Data flow and integrity
d.a & b
14. Beta testing is one of the techniques used for configuration coverage.
a.True
b.False
15. White box testing is a kind of testing that a programmer does during coding.
a.True
b.False
16. What is the main characteristic of the best tester?
a.The one who finds the most bugs
b.The one who embarrasses the most programmers
c.The one who gets the most bugs fixed
d.a & c
17. Testers miss many failures because they do not read the ______ carefully.
a.Output
b.Input
c.Test condition(s)
d.a & b
18. Use cases, often referred to as ______, are very useful for designing acceptance tests with customer/user participation.
a.Scenarios
b.Business processes
c.Test components
d.Conditions
19. A structured approach to the error guessing technique is to enumerate a list of possible errors and to design tests that attack these errors.
a.True
b.False
20. Select the use cases criteria(s) that satisfy the user goals of the primary actors.
a.Choose the system boundary
b.Finding Primary Actors
c.Finding Primary Goals
d.All of the above
Friday, June 11, 2010
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 10
1. The objective for any review meeting is to solve problems with the design?
a. True
b. False
2. Which is not a role of a review facilitator during a review meeting?
a. Running the review meeting
b. Stopping Interruptions
c. Commenting on the design documentation
d. Keeping the discussion focused
e. Preparing a final summary report.
3. Which of the following is an example of static testing?
a.Black box testing
b.Structural testing
c.Path testing
d.Glass box testing
e.None of the above
4. Defects detected while testing are more costly to remove than those detected during reviews early in the life cycle.
a.True
b.False
5. Which of the following is not a task during the planning phase of a formal review?
a.Select the personnel
b.Allocate roles
c.Select which parts of documents to look at
d.Distribute Documentation
e.Define the entry and exit criteria
6. Which of the following is a form of static testing:
a. Appraisal
b. Walkthrough
c. Assessment
d. Gap Analysis
7. Desk Checking defines a process were someone reads the program carefully and analyzes its behavior without running test cases at the computer.
a. True
b. False
8. The transformation of information – either through parameters or a stored database – from one component of a system to another is:
a.Data Flow
b.Internal Flow
c.Control Flow
d.None of the above
9. Which of the items listed below is not a benefit of software reviews:
a.Development productivity improvements
b.Reduced development timescales
c.Reduced testing cost and time
d.Lifetime cost reductions
e.None of the above
10. During _______, the designer simulates the program, showing step by step what the program will do with test data supplied by the reviewers.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
11. The main purpose of _______ is to learn, gain understanding, and find defects.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
12. The main purpose of _________ is to make decisions, evaluate alternatives, find defects, solve technical problems and check conformance to specifications and standards.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
13. What is the Cyclomatic Complexity of the code below?
public void ProcessPages()
{
while(nextPage !=true)
{
if((lineCount<=linesPerPage) && (status != Status.Cancelled) && (morePages == true))
{
//....
}
}
}
a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6
14. _________ identifies how the program transitions from one state to another.
a.Data Flow
b.Internal Flow
c.Control Flow
d.None of the above
15. In an ideal review meeting, the following individual(s) do not make comments on design documentation.
a.Author
b.Scribe
c.Facilitator
d.Reviewer
16. Reviews, Static Analysis, and Dynamic testing have the same objective – Identifying defects.
a. True
b. False
17. During ______, reviewers check every line of the design against each item in a checklist.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
18. Which of the following types of defects are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing (select all that apply)?
a.deviations from standards
b.requirement defects
c.design defects
d.None of the above
19. Which is not a success factor for reviews?
a.Each review has a clear predefined objective.
b.The right people for the review objectives are involved.
c.Authors are held accountable for design mistakes.
d.Defects found are welcomed, and expressed objectively.
e.None of the above
20. Static analysis tools are typically used by developers (checking against predefined rules or programming standards) before and during component and integration testing, and by designers during software modeling.
a.True
b.False
a. True
b. False
2. Which is not a role of a review facilitator during a review meeting?
a. Running the review meeting
b. Stopping Interruptions
c. Commenting on the design documentation
d. Keeping the discussion focused
e. Preparing a final summary report.
3. Which of the following is an example of static testing?
a.Black box testing
b.Structural testing
c.Path testing
d.Glass box testing
e.None of the above
4. Defects detected while testing are more costly to remove than those detected during reviews early in the life cycle.
a.True
b.False
5. Which of the following is not a task during the planning phase of a formal review?
a.Select the personnel
b.Allocate roles
c.Select which parts of documents to look at
d.Distribute Documentation
e.Define the entry and exit criteria
6. Which of the following is a form of static testing:
a. Appraisal
b. Walkthrough
c. Assessment
d. Gap Analysis
7. Desk Checking defines a process were someone reads the program carefully and analyzes its behavior without running test cases at the computer.
a. True
b. False
8. The transformation of information – either through parameters or a stored database – from one component of a system to another is:
a.Data Flow
b.Internal Flow
c.Control Flow
d.None of the above
9. Which of the items listed below is not a benefit of software reviews:
a.Development productivity improvements
b.Reduced development timescales
c.Reduced testing cost and time
d.Lifetime cost reductions
e.None of the above
10. During _______, the designer simulates the program, showing step by step what the program will do with test data supplied by the reviewers.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
11. The main purpose of _______ is to learn, gain understanding, and find defects.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
12. The main purpose of _________ is to make decisions, evaluate alternatives, find defects, solve technical problems and check conformance to specifications and standards.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
13. What is the Cyclomatic Complexity of the code below?
public void ProcessPages()
{
while(nextPage !=true)
{
if((lineCount<=linesPerPage) && (status != Status.Cancelled) && (morePages == true))
{
//....
}
}
}
a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6
14. _________ identifies how the program transitions from one state to another.
a.Data Flow
b.Internal Flow
c.Control Flow
d.None of the above
15. In an ideal review meeting, the following individual(s) do not make comments on design documentation.
a.Author
b.Scribe
c.Facilitator
d.Reviewer
16. Reviews, Static Analysis, and Dynamic testing have the same objective – Identifying defects.
a. True
b. False
17. During ______, reviewers check every line of the design against each item in a checklist.
a.Inspections
b.Walkthroughs
c.Reviews
d.None of the above
18. Which of the following types of defects are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing (select all that apply)?
a.deviations from standards
b.requirement defects
c.design defects
d.None of the above
19. Which is not a success factor for reviews?
a.Each review has a clear predefined objective.
b.The right people for the review objectives are involved.
c.Authors are held accountable for design mistakes.
d.Defects found are welcomed, and expressed objectively.
e.None of the above
20. Static analysis tools are typically used by developers (checking against predefined rules or programming standards) before and during component and integration testing, and by designers during software modeling.
a.True
b.False
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 9
1. Select one that is not strength of a third-party testing organization
a.Expertise in test project management
b.Run tests quickly
c.Expert consulting and training services
d.None of the above
2. Testers should have access to the following in a test lab
a.Bug testing database
b.Test tracking spreadsheet
c.System configuration tracking database
d.a, b, & c
3. Choose an incorrect statement:
a.Testers at the component and integration level should be developers
b.Testers for risk-management should be test analysts
c.Testers at the acceptance test level should be business experts and users
d.Testers for operational acceptance testing should be operators
4. Exit Criterion determines:
a.When testing needs to continue
b.When system is ready for delivery
c.When testing has been completed
d.All of the above
5. The testing effort may not depend on the following factor:
a.Characteristics of reported bugs
b.Characteristics of the product
c.Characteristics of the development process
d.The outcome of testing
6. Risks allow us to decide where to (pick 2)
a.Design, code, and conduct testing
b.Focus in the test plan
c.Start testing and where to test more
d.Testing is used to reduce the risk of an adverse effect occurring, or to reduce the impact of an adverse effect
e. a & b
7. When testers report to their test managers about their testing effort, the focus should be on ____________
a.Boundary conditions, state machines, and load generators
b.Risk management and impact of serious test escapes on the reputation and revenues of the company
c.a & b
d.None of the above
8.Enforcement of source and version control standards is often delegated to Quality Assurance groups.
a.True
b.False
9. Select one that should not be part of selection of a test approach:
a.Risk of failure of project
b.Skills and experience of the people
c.The objective of testing endeavor and mission of the testing team
d.Regulatory aspects and nature of product/business
e.None of the above
10. Instead of buying repeated tasking from independent test agency, a test manager should ask for test plan, test cases, and suggestion for further work
a.True
b.False
11. The role of test leader cannot be performed by:
a.Project manager
b.Configuration manager
c.Development manager
d.QA manager
e.Manager of test group
12. Automated tests should consider
a.Time cost to create automated tests
b.Test delay due to creation of automated tests
c.Risks of missed bugs
d.Partial automation
e.All of the above
13. Choose one statement that is incorrect. Performance testing:
a.Can be tested using glass box or black box techniques
b.Objective is performance enhancement
c.Can be used to provide numerical estimate of required quality for gauging purposes
d.Can reflect bugs, especially when a part of the program used to run quickly is now slow
14. Which of these criterions are essential for beginning and completing various test phases?
a.Entry criterion spells out what must happen to allow a system to move into a particular phase
b.Continuation criteria define those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently
c.Exit criteria addresses the issue of how to determine when testing has been completed
d.All of the above
15. Metrics should be collected during and at the end of a test level in order to assess:
a.The adequacy of the test objectives for that level
b.The adequacy of the test approach
c.The effectiveness of the testing with respect to its objectives
d.All of the above
16. The costs involved in testing and quality assurance is ___________ than the costs associated with external failures.
a.More
b.Less
c.Same
d.Unimaginable
17. The point of writing problem reports is to get bugs ________
a.Analyzed
b.Reported
c.Fixed
d.Documented
18. Problem summary reports distributed to management should list:
a.Report number, severity
b.Report number, severity, summary
c.Report number, severity, summary, suggested fix
d.Report number, severity, summary, categorization
19. It is important to analyze complicated problem reports. The objectives of the analysis should not be to:
a.Find target customers who will be most affected
b.Find the most serious consequences of the problem
c.Find the simplest, shortest, and most general conditions that will trigger the bug
d.Find related problems
20. Dynamic and __________ approaches, such as exploratory testing were testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks.
a.Consultative
b.Regression-averse
c.Analytical
d.Heuristic
a.Expertise in test project management
b.Run tests quickly
c.Expert consulting and training services
d.None of the above
2. Testers should have access to the following in a test lab
a.Bug testing database
b.Test tracking spreadsheet
c.System configuration tracking database
d.a, b, & c
3. Choose an incorrect statement:
a.Testers at the component and integration level should be developers
b.Testers for risk-management should be test analysts
c.Testers at the acceptance test level should be business experts and users
d.Testers for operational acceptance testing should be operators
4. Exit Criterion determines:
a.When testing needs to continue
b.When system is ready for delivery
c.When testing has been completed
d.All of the above
5. The testing effort may not depend on the following factor:
a.Characteristics of reported bugs
b.Characteristics of the product
c.Characteristics of the development process
d.The outcome of testing
6. Risks allow us to decide where to (pick 2)
a.Design, code, and conduct testing
b.Focus in the test plan
c.Start testing and where to test more
d.Testing is used to reduce the risk of an adverse effect occurring, or to reduce the impact of an adverse effect
e. a & b
7. When testers report to their test managers about their testing effort, the focus should be on ____________
a.Boundary conditions, state machines, and load generators
b.Risk management and impact of serious test escapes on the reputation and revenues of the company
c.a & b
d.None of the above
8.Enforcement of source and version control standards is often delegated to Quality Assurance groups.
a.True
b.False
9. Select one that should not be part of selection of a test approach:
a.Risk of failure of project
b.Skills and experience of the people
c.The objective of testing endeavor and mission of the testing team
d.Regulatory aspects and nature of product/business
e.None of the above
10. Instead of buying repeated tasking from independent test agency, a test manager should ask for test plan, test cases, and suggestion for further work
a.True
b.False
11. The role of test leader cannot be performed by:
a.Project manager
b.Configuration manager
c.Development manager
d.QA manager
e.Manager of test group
12. Automated tests should consider
a.Time cost to create automated tests
b.Test delay due to creation of automated tests
c.Risks of missed bugs
d.Partial automation
e.All of the above
13. Choose one statement that is incorrect. Performance testing:
a.Can be tested using glass box or black box techniques
b.Objective is performance enhancement
c.Can be used to provide numerical estimate of required quality for gauging purposes
d.Can reflect bugs, especially when a part of the program used to run quickly is now slow
14. Which of these criterions are essential for beginning and completing various test phases?
a.Entry criterion spells out what must happen to allow a system to move into a particular phase
b.Continuation criteria define those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently
c.Exit criteria addresses the issue of how to determine when testing has been completed
d.All of the above
15. Metrics should be collected during and at the end of a test level in order to assess:
a.The adequacy of the test objectives for that level
b.The adequacy of the test approach
c.The effectiveness of the testing with respect to its objectives
d.All of the above
16. The costs involved in testing and quality assurance is ___________ than the costs associated with external failures.
a.More
b.Less
c.Same
d.Unimaginable
17. The point of writing problem reports is to get bugs ________
a.Analyzed
b.Reported
c.Fixed
d.Documented
18. Problem summary reports distributed to management should list:
a.Report number, severity
b.Report number, severity, summary
c.Report number, severity, summary, suggested fix
d.Report number, severity, summary, categorization
19. It is important to analyze complicated problem reports. The objectives of the analysis should not be to:
a.Find target customers who will be most affected
b.Find the most serious consequences of the problem
c.Find the simplest, shortest, and most general conditions that will trigger the bug
d.Find related problems
20. Dynamic and __________ approaches, such as exploratory testing were testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks.
a.Consultative
b.Regression-averse
c.Analytical
d.Heuristic
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 8
1)What term describes the failure to perform a pre-defined command, a deviation between the expected and actual behavior?
a)Error
b)Fault
c)Failure
d)Fault Masking
2)What is the first step in the testing process?
a.specification
b.evaluating exit criteria and reporting
c.execution
d.planning
3) What are appraisal costs?
a.All testing costs and the costs of everything else the company does to look for errors.
b.Everything the company spends to prevent software and documentation errors.
c.All costs of coping with errors discovered during development and testing.
d.All costs of coping with errors discovered, typically by your customers, after the product is released.
4) Which is a form of static testing?
a. Appraisal
b. Walkthrough
c. Assessment
d. Gap Analysis
5) What is another name(s) for black-box testing?
a. Functional Testing
b. Specification-based Testing
c. Structure-based Testing
d. Behavioral Testing
1) A and D
2) A, B, C
3) A, B, and D
4) C and D
6) Structural tests find bugs in what low-level operations?
a. Lines of code
b. Data flow and integrity
c. Database schemas
d. User interface
1) A and C
2) A, B, and C
3) A and D
4) B and D
7) What term is used to describe the number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or system?
a. Defect Size
b. Defect Detection Percentage
c. Defect Density
d. Defect Measurement
8) What is the definition of load testing?
a. Testing the application’s response and adaptation to changing levels of activity
b. Testing capacity limits on such variables as input volume or number of concurrent processes
c. Testing conducted to evaluate a system or component at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements
d. Testing of response time, throughput rates, and total job run times
9) Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team?
a.All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes
b.The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test
c.Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times
d.The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release
10) What describes functional testing?
a.sometimes has the same meaning as behavioral tests
b.simultaneously designing, developing, and executing tests
c.must be augmented with other test approaches to deal with potentially important quality risks such as performance, load, capacity, and volume
d.A & C
11) What term describes how a program transitions from one state to another?
a.Data Flow
b.Internal Flow
c.Control Flow
d.Structural Flow
12) Which of the use case criteria(s) satisfy the user goals of the primary actors?
a.Choose the system boundary
b.Finding Primary Actors
c.Finding Primary Goals
d.A, B, and C
13) What test document contains all the information about a specific test case, including requirements and the modules to be tested?
a. Test plan
b. Test case specification
c. Test design specification
d. Test procedure
14) What testing tool is used to generate test inputs or the actual tests from requirements, from a graphical user interface, from design models, or from code?
a. Test execution tools
b. Test harness tools
c. Test design tools
d. Modeling tools
15) Which is an objective of a pilot project?
a.Assessment of organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses
b.Defining usage guidelines
c.Identification of opportunities for an improved test process supported by tools
d.Learn more detail about the tool
16) Which is a characteristic of test management tools?
a. Support the management of tests and the testing activities carried out
b. Store information about versions and builds of software and testware
c. Support developers, testers, and QA personnel in finding defects before dynamic testing
d. Manipulate databases, files, or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests
17) The following code segment contains a potential “divide by 0” error.
J=50
K=1
while (N>=10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N 1
end loop
Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?
a. Source code inspection
b. Boundary testing
c. Compilation of the source code
d. Condition testing
18) What term describes testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and the interaction between integrated components?
a. System Testing
b. Component Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. Interface Testing
19) What term is used to describe the act of locating and removing faults (bugs) from a system/product?
a.Testing
b.Fault Masking
c.Debugging
d.Decoding
20) Which of the following types of defects are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing?
a.deviations from standards
b.requirement defects
c.design defects
d.incorrect interface specifications
1) A and B
2) A, B, and D
3) C and D
4) A, B, C, and D
21) What term describes the interactions between actors, including users and the system, which produce a result of value to a system user?
a. Use Case
b. Test Case
c. Test Case Specification
d. Input/Output
22) What is the definition of failure costs?
a. Costs incurred because faults and deficiencies in a product remain undetected
b. Costs incurred because customer is dissatisfied with the product
c. Costs incurred due to lack of testing staff
d. Costs incurred due to poorly written requirements
23) Which of the following tools offer support more appropriate for developers?
a.Static Analysis tools
b.Test harness/unit test framework tools
c.Test data preparation tools
d.Test execution tools
1)A and C
2)A, B, and C
3)C and D
4)A, B, and D
24) What term is used to define the chance of an event, hazard, threat or situation occurring and its undesirable consequences, a potential problem?
a. Defect
b. Risk
c. Fault
d. Failure
25) Which of the following are types of black-box techniques?
a. Equivalence partitioning
b. Boundary input evaluation
c. Decision table testing
d. State transition testing
1) A and B
2) A and D
3) A, C, and D
4) C and D
26) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Testers at the component and integration level should be developers
b. Testers for risk-management should be test analysts
c. Testers at the acceptance test level should be business experts and users
d. Testers for operational acceptance testing should be operators
27) Which of the following are success factors for the deployment of the tool within an organization?
a.Rolling out the tool to the rest of the organization incrementally
b.Defining usage guidelines, implementing a way to learn lessons from tool use
c.Adapting and improving processes to fit with the use of the tool
d.Evaluation against clear requirements and objective criteria
1)A and C
2)B and D
3)A, B, and C
4)B, C, and D
28) What test tool simulates the environment in which the test object will run?
a.Test harness/unit test framework tool
b.Dynamic analysis tool
c.Monitoring tool
d.Coverage management tool
29) What test strategy is informal and non-structured?
a.Equivalence partitioning
b.Validation strategy
c.White box testing
d.Ad hoc testing
30) Which of these describes system testing?
a. Typically the least expensive and least time consuming level of testing
b. Often represents the bulk of the testing effort
c. Typically the third step in the “V” model testing process
d. Forms the basis of a regression test set
1) A
2) B
3) B, C, and D
4) C and D
31) What term(s) can also be used to describe an error condition?
a.Defect
b.Internal Fault
c.Failure
d.Bug
1)A
2)A and B
3)A, B, C
4)A, B, and D
32) What are the level(s) are commonly found in the V-Model?
a.system testing
b.component (unit) testing
c.acceptance testing
d.interface testing
1) A and B
2) A, B, and D
3) A, B, and C
4) A, B, C, and D
33) Which of the following are types of white-box techniques?
a. Decision testing
b. Boundary value analysis
c. Statement testing
d. Use case testing
1) A and B
2) A and C
3) A, C, and D
4) C and D
34) What is the definition of test coverage?
a. The degree, expressed as a percentage, to which a specified coverage item has been exercised by a test suite
b. A sequence of events (paths) in the execution through a component or system
c. An analysis method that determines which parts of the software have been executed by the test suite and which parts have not been executed
d. The percentage of decision outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite
35) What statement is true regarding stress testing tools?
a. They monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of simulated conditions
b. They analyze, verify, and report on usage of specific system resources, and give warnings of possible service problems
c. They test the components or part of a system by simulating the environment in which that test object will run
d. They evaluate a system or component at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements
36) What is the Cyclomatic Complexity of the code below?
public void ProcessPages()
{
while(nextPage !=true)
{
if((lineCount<=linesPerPage) && (status != Status.Cancelled) && (morePages == true))
{
//....
}
}
}
a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6
37) What is requirements-based testing?
a. A test method using descriptions of business processes to design test cases
b. A test method based on objectives derived from requirements for the software component
c. A test method used to determine whether the system/software meets the specified usability requirements
d. A test method where test design and execution are conducted concurrently
38) What term is used to describe a test case without specific values for inputs and outputs; general conditions or classes are specified?
a.Physical(Concrete) test cases
b.Logical test cases
c.Boundary equivalent test cases
d.Blind Input test cases
39) Which of the following is an objective of an incident report?
a. Provide developers with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation,and correction as necessary
b. Provide test leaders a means of tracking the quality of the system under test and the progress of the testing
c. Provide ideas for test process improvement
d. Provide management with information regarding who is responsible for the defect
1) A
2) A and B
3) A, B, and C
4) A, B, C, and D
40) Which of the following answers reflect characteristics of test management tools?
a.Logging of test results and generation of progress reports
b.Improve the efficiency of testing activities by automating repetitive tasks
c.Independent version control or interface with an external configuration management tool
d.Assignment of actions to people (e.g. fix or confirmation test)
1)A and C
2)A, B, and D
3)B and D
4)B, C, and D
a)Error
b)Fault
c)Failure
d)Fault Masking
2)What is the first step in the testing process?
a.specification
b.evaluating exit criteria and reporting
c.execution
d.planning
3) What are appraisal costs?
a.All testing costs and the costs of everything else the company does to look for errors.
b.Everything the company spends to prevent software and documentation errors.
c.All costs of coping with errors discovered during development and testing.
d.All costs of coping with errors discovered, typically by your customers, after the product is released.
4) Which is a form of static testing?
a. Appraisal
b. Walkthrough
c. Assessment
d. Gap Analysis
5) What is another name(s) for black-box testing?
a. Functional Testing
b. Specification-based Testing
c. Structure-based Testing
d. Behavioral Testing
1) A and D
2) A, B, C
3) A, B, and D
4) C and D
6) Structural tests find bugs in what low-level operations?
a. Lines of code
b. Data flow and integrity
c. Database schemas
d. User interface
1) A and C
2) A, B, and C
3) A and D
4) B and D
7) What term is used to describe the number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or system?
a. Defect Size
b. Defect Detection Percentage
c. Defect Density
d. Defect Measurement
8) What is the definition of load testing?
a. Testing the application’s response and adaptation to changing levels of activity
b. Testing capacity limits on such variables as input volume or number of concurrent processes
c. Testing conducted to evaluate a system or component at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements
d. Testing of response time, throughput rates, and total job run times
9) Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team?
a.All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes
b.The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test
c.Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times
d.The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release
10) What describes functional testing?
a.sometimes has the same meaning as behavioral tests
b.simultaneously designing, developing, and executing tests
c.must be augmented with other test approaches to deal with potentially important quality risks such as performance, load, capacity, and volume
d.A & C
11) What term describes how a program transitions from one state to another?
a.Data Flow
b.Internal Flow
c.Control Flow
d.Structural Flow
12) Which of the use case criteria(s) satisfy the user goals of the primary actors?
a.Choose the system boundary
b.Finding Primary Actors
c.Finding Primary Goals
d.A, B, and C
13) What test document contains all the information about a specific test case, including requirements and the modules to be tested?
a. Test plan
b. Test case specification
c. Test design specification
d. Test procedure
14) What testing tool is used to generate test inputs or the actual tests from requirements, from a graphical user interface, from design models, or from code?
a. Test execution tools
b. Test harness tools
c. Test design tools
d. Modeling tools
15) Which is an objective of a pilot project?
a.Assessment of organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses
b.Defining usage guidelines
c.Identification of opportunities for an improved test process supported by tools
d.Learn more detail about the tool
16) Which is a characteristic of test management tools?
a. Support the management of tests and the testing activities carried out
b. Store information about versions and builds of software and testware
c. Support developers, testers, and QA personnel in finding defects before dynamic testing
d. Manipulate databases, files, or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests
17) The following code segment contains a potential “divide by 0” error.
J=50
K=1
while (N>=10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N 1
end loop
Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?
a. Source code inspection
b. Boundary testing
c. Compilation of the source code
d. Condition testing
18) What term describes testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and the interaction between integrated components?
a. System Testing
b. Component Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. Interface Testing
19) What term is used to describe the act of locating and removing faults (bugs) from a system/product?
a.Testing
b.Fault Masking
c.Debugging
d.Decoding
20) Which of the following types of defects are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing?
a.deviations from standards
b.requirement defects
c.design defects
d.incorrect interface specifications
1) A and B
2) A, B, and D
3) C and D
4) A, B, C, and D
21) What term describes the interactions between actors, including users and the system, which produce a result of value to a system user?
a. Use Case
b. Test Case
c. Test Case Specification
d. Input/Output
22) What is the definition of failure costs?
a. Costs incurred because faults and deficiencies in a product remain undetected
b. Costs incurred because customer is dissatisfied with the product
c. Costs incurred due to lack of testing staff
d. Costs incurred due to poorly written requirements
23) Which of the following tools offer support more appropriate for developers?
a.Static Analysis tools
b.Test harness/unit test framework tools
c.Test data preparation tools
d.Test execution tools
1)A and C
2)A, B, and C
3)C and D
4)A, B, and D
24) What term is used to define the chance of an event, hazard, threat or situation occurring and its undesirable consequences, a potential problem?
a. Defect
b. Risk
c. Fault
d. Failure
25) Which of the following are types of black-box techniques?
a. Equivalence partitioning
b. Boundary input evaluation
c. Decision table testing
d. State transition testing
1) A and B
2) A and D
3) A, C, and D
4) C and D
26) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Testers at the component and integration level should be developers
b. Testers for risk-management should be test analysts
c. Testers at the acceptance test level should be business experts and users
d. Testers for operational acceptance testing should be operators
27) Which of the following are success factors for the deployment of the tool within an organization?
a.Rolling out the tool to the rest of the organization incrementally
b.Defining usage guidelines, implementing a way to learn lessons from tool use
c.Adapting and improving processes to fit with the use of the tool
d.Evaluation against clear requirements and objective criteria
1)A and C
2)B and D
3)A, B, and C
4)B, C, and D
28) What test tool simulates the environment in which the test object will run?
a.Test harness/unit test framework tool
b.Dynamic analysis tool
c.Monitoring tool
d.Coverage management tool
29) What test strategy is informal and non-structured?
a.Equivalence partitioning
b.Validation strategy
c.White box testing
d.Ad hoc testing
30) Which of these describes system testing?
a. Typically the least expensive and least time consuming level of testing
b. Often represents the bulk of the testing effort
c. Typically the third step in the “V” model testing process
d. Forms the basis of a regression test set
1) A
2) B
3) B, C, and D
4) C and D
31) What term(s) can also be used to describe an error condition?
a.Defect
b.Internal Fault
c.Failure
d.Bug
1)A
2)A and B
3)A, B, C
4)A, B, and D
32) What are the level(s) are commonly found in the V-Model?
a.system testing
b.component (unit) testing
c.acceptance testing
d.interface testing
1) A and B
2) A, B, and D
3) A, B, and C
4) A, B, C, and D
33) Which of the following are types of white-box techniques?
a. Decision testing
b. Boundary value analysis
c. Statement testing
d. Use case testing
1) A and B
2) A and C
3) A, C, and D
4) C and D
34) What is the definition of test coverage?
a. The degree, expressed as a percentage, to which a specified coverage item has been exercised by a test suite
b. A sequence of events (paths) in the execution through a component or system
c. An analysis method that determines which parts of the software have been executed by the test suite and which parts have not been executed
d. The percentage of decision outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite
35) What statement is true regarding stress testing tools?
a. They monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of simulated conditions
b. They analyze, verify, and report on usage of specific system resources, and give warnings of possible service problems
c. They test the components or part of a system by simulating the environment in which that test object will run
d. They evaluate a system or component at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements
36) What is the Cyclomatic Complexity of the code below?
public void ProcessPages()
{
while(nextPage !=true)
{
if((lineCount<=linesPerPage) && (status != Status.Cancelled) && (morePages == true))
{
//....
}
}
}
a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6
37) What is requirements-based testing?
a. A test method using descriptions of business processes to design test cases
b. A test method based on objectives derived from requirements for the software component
c. A test method used to determine whether the system/software meets the specified usability requirements
d. A test method where test design and execution are conducted concurrently
38) What term is used to describe a test case without specific values for inputs and outputs; general conditions or classes are specified?
a.Physical(Concrete) test cases
b.Logical test cases
c.Boundary equivalent test cases
d.Blind Input test cases
39) Which of the following is an objective of an incident report?
a. Provide developers with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation,and correction as necessary
b. Provide test leaders a means of tracking the quality of the system under test and the progress of the testing
c. Provide ideas for test process improvement
d. Provide management with information regarding who is responsible for the defect
1) A
2) A and B
3) A, B, and C
4) A, B, C, and D
40) Which of the following answers reflect characteristics of test management tools?
a.Logging of test results and generation of progress reports
b.Improve the efficiency of testing activities by automating repetitive tasks
c.Independent version control or interface with an external configuration management tool
d.Assignment of actions to people (e.g. fix or confirmation test)
1)A and C
2)A, B, and D
3)B and D
4)B, C, and D
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 7
1. What is failure?
A. Deviation from expected result to actual result
B. Defect in the software.
C. Error in the program code.
D. Fault in the system.
2. People who don’t participate in technical reviews
A. Analysts
B. Management
C. Developers
D. Testers
3. What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?
A. Regression testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. Error Guessing
D. System testing.
4. Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to ….
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing
C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.
5. What is the smallest number of test cases required to
Provide 100% branch coverage?
If (x>y)
x=x+1;
Else
y=y+1;
while (x>y)
{
y=x*y;
x=x+1;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
6. Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
A. number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
B. number of binary decisions + 1
C. upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once
D. number of branches and decisions
7. If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class?
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32, 37, 40
8. Match the following:
1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. measures of tracking process
b. effort required to perform activities
c. reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
9. One of the following is not a part of white box testing as
per BS7925-II standards.
A. Random testing
B. Data Flow testing.
C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.
10. Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:
A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.
B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.
C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.
D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.
11. Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system
are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.
12. Cost of the reviews will not include.
A. Review process itself
B. Metrics analysis
C. Tool support.
D. Process improvement.
13. What type of testing will you perform on internet banking
solution?
A. System integration
B. Functional testing
C. Non-functional testing.
D. Requirements testing
14. Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and
unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.
15. Which of the following is not included in Test Plan?
A. Features to be tested.
B. Environmental needs.
C. Suspension criteria.
D. Expected results.
16. A piece of software has been given….what tests in the
Following will you perform?
1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities
A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
B. 1,2&3 are true.
C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true.
17. Amount of testing performed will not depend on
A. Risks involved
B. Contractual requirements
C. Legal requirements
D. Test data.
18. Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost
saving from use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test planning
D. Test execution
19. Testing is not done to ….
A. Find faults
B. Improve quality
C. Check user friendliness.
D. Improve software accuracy
20. Software quality is not relevant to …
A. Correctness
B. Usability
C. Viability
D. Reusability.
21. Which of the following are false?
A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.
B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process
improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
22. Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?
A. Usability testing.
B. Statement Coverage.
C. Dataflow testing.
D. Cause-effect graphing.
23. To make a test effective it is most important that:
A. It is easy to execute.
B. It is designed to detect faults if present.
C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.
D. It is unlikely to delay progress.
24. Error guessing is:
A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
C. Only used when good requirements are available.
D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.
25. A standard for software testing terminology is:
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2
26. Which of the following is true of V-model?
A. It includes the verification of designs.
B. It states that modules are tested against user
requirements.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It only models the testing phase.
27. Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.
28. When do you stop testing?
A. When the specified number of faults are found.
B. When the test completion criteria are met.
C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
D. When all statements have been executed.
29. Which of the following is least important in test
management?
A. Estimating test duration.
B. Incident Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. De-bugging.
30. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to
be required?
A. Metrics from previous similar projects.
B. Discussions with the development team.
C. Time allocated for regression testing.
D. Both A & B.
31. Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative
code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with
dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white-
Box testing is to be performed.
32. Regression testing always involves
A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
B. Executing a large number of different tests.
C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse
side effects.
D. Using a test automation tool.
33. A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system.
Which of the following is true?
A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.
B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.
C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.
D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.
34. Integration testing in the large involves:
A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one
go.
35. Data flow analysis studies:
A. How rapidly data is transferred through a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
36. The oracle assumption is that:
A. There is some existing system against which test output
may be checked.
B. The tester knows everything about the software under
test.
C. The tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of
a test.
D. Tools are used to check the results of testing.
36 The following text will be used in Q.37 and Q.38. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
37. To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value
Analysis test case?
A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $28000
D. $33501
38. Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User
Acceptance Testing?
A. Use of automated test execution tools.
B. Testing performed by users.
C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.
D. Integration of system with user documentation.
40. For software to be reliable it must:
A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards.
1. A 26. B
2. B 27. C
3. C 28. B
4. D 29. D
5. B 30. A
6. B 31. A
7. D 32. C
8. A 33. C
9. D 34. A
10. C 35. B
11. B 36. C
12. C 37. D
13. C 38. A
14. A 39. A
15. D 40. B
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. D
25. C
A. Deviation from expected result to actual result
B. Defect in the software.
C. Error in the program code.
D. Fault in the system.
2. People who don’t participate in technical reviews
A. Analysts
B. Management
C. Developers
D. Testers
3. What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?
A. Regression testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. Error Guessing
D. System testing.
4. Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to ….
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing
C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.
5. What is the smallest number of test cases required to
Provide 100% branch coverage?
If (x>y)
x=x+1;
Else
y=y+1;
while (x>y)
{
y=x*y;
x=x+1;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
6. Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
A. number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
B. number of binary decisions + 1
C. upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once
D. number of branches and decisions
7. If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class?
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32, 37, 40
8. Match the following:
1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. measures of tracking process
b. effort required to perform activities
c. reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
9. One of the following is not a part of white box testing as
per BS7925-II standards.
A. Random testing
B. Data Flow testing.
C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.
10. Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:
A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.
B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.
C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.
D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.
11. Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system
are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.
12. Cost of the reviews will not include.
A. Review process itself
B. Metrics analysis
C. Tool support.
D. Process improvement.
13. What type of testing will you perform on internet banking
solution?
A. System integration
B. Functional testing
C. Non-functional testing.
D. Requirements testing
14. Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and
unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.
15. Which of the following is not included in Test Plan?
A. Features to be tested.
B. Environmental needs.
C. Suspension criteria.
D. Expected results.
16. A piece of software has been given….what tests in the
Following will you perform?
1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities
A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
B. 1,2&3 are true.
C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true.
17. Amount of testing performed will not depend on
A. Risks involved
B. Contractual requirements
C. Legal requirements
D. Test data.
18. Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost
saving from use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test planning
D. Test execution
19. Testing is not done to ….
A. Find faults
B. Improve quality
C. Check user friendliness.
D. Improve software accuracy
20. Software quality is not relevant to …
A. Correctness
B. Usability
C. Viability
D. Reusability.
21. Which of the following are false?
A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.
B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process
improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
22. Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?
A. Usability testing.
B. Statement Coverage.
C. Dataflow testing.
D. Cause-effect graphing.
23. To make a test effective it is most important that:
A. It is easy to execute.
B. It is designed to detect faults if present.
C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.
D. It is unlikely to delay progress.
24. Error guessing is:
A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
C. Only used when good requirements are available.
D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.
25. A standard for software testing terminology is:
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2
26. Which of the following is true of V-model?
A. It includes the verification of designs.
B. It states that modules are tested against user
requirements.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It only models the testing phase.
27. Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.
28. When do you stop testing?
A. When the specified number of faults are found.
B. When the test completion criteria are met.
C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
D. When all statements have been executed.
29. Which of the following is least important in test
management?
A. Estimating test duration.
B. Incident Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. De-bugging.
30. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to
be required?
A. Metrics from previous similar projects.
B. Discussions with the development team.
C. Time allocated for regression testing.
D. Both A & B.
31. Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative
code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with
dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white-
Box testing is to be performed.
32. Regression testing always involves
A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
B. Executing a large number of different tests.
C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse
side effects.
D. Using a test automation tool.
33. A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system.
Which of the following is true?
A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.
B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.
C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.
D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.
34. Integration testing in the large involves:
A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one
go.
35. Data flow analysis studies:
A. How rapidly data is transferred through a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
36. The oracle assumption is that:
A. There is some existing system against which test output
may be checked.
B. The tester knows everything about the software under
test.
C. The tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of
a test.
D. Tools are used to check the results of testing.
36 The following text will be used in Q.37 and Q.38. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
37. To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value
Analysis test case?
A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $28000
D. $33501
38. Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User
Acceptance Testing?
A. Use of automated test execution tools.
B. Testing performed by users.
C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.
D. Integration of system with user documentation.
40. For software to be reliable it must:
A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards.
1. A 26. B
2. B 27. C
3. C 28. B
4. D 29. D
5. B 30. A
6. B 31. A
7. D 32. C
8. A 33. C
9. D 34. A
10. C 35. B
11. B 36. C
12. C 37. D
13. C 38. A
14. A 39. A
15. D 40. B
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. D
25. C
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 6
1.Test granularity refers to:
a.Any way of determining the expected result for a test case.
b.A quality improvement idea common in software development.
c.The fineness or coarseness of a test’s focus.
d.The impact of a bug on the system under test.
2.The prime benefit of testing is that it results in improved defects
a.True
b.False
3.A bug report is a:
a.A collection of independent, reusable test cases.
b.A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug.
c.A deliverable that details the strategic approach to a testing effort
d.A & B
4.A software error can be described as:
a.A description of the relationship between two or more variables or set members in which the value of one does not influence the values of others.
b.Any ill-advised, substandard, or temporary fix applied to an urgent problem in the (often misguided) belief that doing so will keep a project moving forward.
c.The process in which developers determine the root cause of a bug and identify possible fixes.
d.A mismatch between the program and its specification.
5.Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is impossible:
a.The domain of possible inputs is too large to test.
b.Limited financial resources.
c.There are too many possible paths through the program to test.
d.The user interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely test.
6.Testing looks for situations in which a product fails to meet the developer’s expectations in specific areas.
a.True
b.False
7.Select a reason that does not support the idea of using separate test plans for test subprojects that are distinct in one or more ways:
a.Different resources
b.Different time periods
c.Different methodologies
d.Different objectives
e.Different audiences
8.The testing effort begins with:
a.Test planning
b.Test case design
c.Test execution
d.B & C
e.A & B
9.Testing during the design stage involves:
a.Examining the design documents
b.Reading drafts of the planning documents
c.Acceptance or qualification testing
d.None of the above
10. A well-designed test system promotes:
a.Principles
b.Actions
c.Resources
d.Accountability
11.When testing operating systems or applications, the first step of testing a new build should consist of :
a.Notifying test lead
b.Updating requirements
c.Testing the upgrade/installation procedures
d.A & B
12. The general rule of test execution is that you must always create a test procedure that will force the program to use the data you’ve entered and to prove that it is using your data correctly.
a.True
b.False
13. Which is not a goal of writing effective Problem/Bug reports?
a.Illustrate how to fix the problem
b.Explain how to reproduce the problem
c.Analyze the error so you can describe it in a minimum number of steps
d.Write a report that is complete, easy to understand, and non-antagonistic
14.Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team?
a.All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes
b.The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test.
c.Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times.
d.The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release.
15. The daily closure period refers to:
a.The average for all closed bugs, including the current day and all previous days
b.The amount of bugs opened over a 24 hour period
c.The average number of days between the opening of a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day.
d.None of the Above
16. Integrity testing involves:
a.The testing of pseudo code
b.Performance testing
c.Alpha testing
d.The final phase of testing prior to deployment
17. Testing literature reflects and promotes a strongly held belief that product reliability will not be better if testing is done by a fully independent test agency.
a.True
b.False
18. Select the item(s) that are general testing principles:
a.Testing shows a presence of defects
b.Exhaustive testing is impossible
c.Automation tools can be a great strategy
d.Absence-of-errors fallacy
19. Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution:
a.Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.
b.Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.
c.Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
d.Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
20.Select the item(s) that compose test objectives:
a.Finding defects
b.Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
c.Preventing tools
d.Utilization of testware
a.Any way of determining the expected result for a test case.
b.A quality improvement idea common in software development.
c.The fineness or coarseness of a test’s focus.
d.The impact of a bug on the system under test.
2.The prime benefit of testing is that it results in improved defects
a.True
b.False
3.A bug report is a:
a.A collection of independent, reusable test cases.
b.A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug.
c.A deliverable that details the strategic approach to a testing effort
d.A & B
4.A software error can be described as:
a.A description of the relationship between two or more variables or set members in which the value of one does not influence the values of others.
b.Any ill-advised, substandard, or temporary fix applied to an urgent problem in the (often misguided) belief that doing so will keep a project moving forward.
c.The process in which developers determine the root cause of a bug and identify possible fixes.
d.A mismatch between the program and its specification.
5.Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is impossible:
a.The domain of possible inputs is too large to test.
b.Limited financial resources.
c.There are too many possible paths through the program to test.
d.The user interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely test.
6.Testing looks for situations in which a product fails to meet the developer’s expectations in specific areas.
a.True
b.False
7.Select a reason that does not support the idea of using separate test plans for test subprojects that are distinct in one or more ways:
a.Different resources
b.Different time periods
c.Different methodologies
d.Different objectives
e.Different audiences
8.The testing effort begins with:
a.Test planning
b.Test case design
c.Test execution
d.B & C
e.A & B
9.Testing during the design stage involves:
a.Examining the design documents
b.Reading drafts of the planning documents
c.Acceptance or qualification testing
d.None of the above
10. A well-designed test system promotes:
a.Principles
b.Actions
c.Resources
d.Accountability
11.When testing operating systems or applications, the first step of testing a new build should consist of :
a.Notifying test lead
b.Updating requirements
c.Testing the upgrade/installation procedures
d.A & B
12. The general rule of test execution is that you must always create a test procedure that will force the program to use the data you’ve entered and to prove that it is using your data correctly.
a.True
b.False
13. Which is not a goal of writing effective Problem/Bug reports?
a.Illustrate how to fix the problem
b.Explain how to reproduce the problem
c.Analyze the error so you can describe it in a minimum number of steps
d.Write a report that is complete, easy to understand, and non-antagonistic
14.Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team?
a.All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes
b.The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test.
c.Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times.
d.The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release.
15. The daily closure period refers to:
a.The average for all closed bugs, including the current day and all previous days
b.The amount of bugs opened over a 24 hour period
c.The average number of days between the opening of a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day.
d.None of the Above
16. Integrity testing involves:
a.The testing of pseudo code
b.Performance testing
c.Alpha testing
d.The final phase of testing prior to deployment
17. Testing literature reflects and promotes a strongly held belief that product reliability will not be better if testing is done by a fully independent test agency.
a.True
b.False
18. Select the item(s) that are general testing principles:
a.Testing shows a presence of defects
b.Exhaustive testing is impossible
c.Automation tools can be a great strategy
d.Absence-of-errors fallacy
19. Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution:
a.Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.
b.Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.
c.Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
d.Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
20.Select the item(s) that compose test objectives:
a.Finding defects
b.Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
c.Preventing tools
d.Utilization of testware
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 5
Question
1We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a)Each test stage has a different purpose.
b)It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c)We can run different tests in different environments.
d)The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a)Regression testing
b)Integration testing
c)System testing
d)User acceptance testing
3Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a)A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b)A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c)A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d)A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4Which of the following requirements is testable?
a)The system shall be user friendly.
b)The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c)The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d)The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a)3
b)4
c)5
d)6
6Error guessing:
a)supplements formal test design techniques.
b)can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c)is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d)is not repeatable and should not be used.
7Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a)Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b)A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c)A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d)Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a)find as many faults as possible.
b)test high risk areas.
c)obtain good test coverage.
d)test whatever is easiest to test.
9Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a)v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b)v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c)v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d)v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a)System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b)Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c)Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d)End-users should be involved in system tests.
11Which of the following is false?
a)Incidents should always be fixed.
b)An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c)Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d)An incident can be raised against documentation.
12Enough testing has been performed when:
a)time runs out.
b)the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c)no more faults are found.
d)the users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a)Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b)Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c)Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d)Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a)syntax testing
b)equivalence partitioning
c)stress testing
d)modified condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a)In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b)A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c)A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d)Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a)They are used to support multi-user testing.
b)They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c)They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d)They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a)Metrics from previous similar projects
b)Discussions with the development team
c)Time allocated for regression testing
d)a & b
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a)It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b)It only models the testing phase.
c)It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d)It includes the verification of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a)is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b)is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c)is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d)is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a)They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b)They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c)Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d)Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a)To find faults in the software.
b)To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c)To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d)To prove that the software is correct.
22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a)Boundary value analysis
b)Usability testing
c)Performance testing
d)Security testing
23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a)Features to be tested
b)Incident reports
c)Risks
d)Schedule
24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a)Test management
b)Test design
c)Test execution
d)Test planning
25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a)Statement testing
b)Path testing
c)Data flow testing
d)State transition testing
26 Data flow analysis studies:
a)possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b)the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c)the use of data on paths through the code.
d)the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)£1500
b)£32001
c)£33501
d)£28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a)enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b)can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c)can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d)are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a)Actual results
b)Program specification
c)User requirements
d)System specification
30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a)An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b)An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c)Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d)A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a)It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b)It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c)It reduces defect multiplication.
d)It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a)tests the individual components that have been developed.
b)tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c)only uses components that form part of the live system.
d)tests interfaces to other systems.
33Static analysis is best described as:
a)the analysis of batch programs.
b)the reviewing of test plans.
c)the analysis of program code.
d)the use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a)post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b)the first testing that is performed.
c)pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d)pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a)found in the software; the result of an error.
b)departure from specified behaviour.
c)an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d)a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a)£4800; £14000; £28000
b)£5200; £5500; £28000
c)£28001; £32000; £35000
d)£5800; £28000; £32000
37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a)makes test preparation easier.
b)means inspections are not required.
c)can prevent fault multiplication.
d)will find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a)Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b)Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c)eviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d)Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39Test cases are designed during:
a)test recording.
b)test planning.
c)test configuration.
d)test specification.
40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a)linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b)facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c)the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d)restricted access to the source code library.
Question number Correct answer
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
1We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a)Each test stage has a different purpose.
b)It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c)We can run different tests in different environments.
d)The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a)Regression testing
b)Integration testing
c)System testing
d)User acceptance testing
3Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a)A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b)A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c)A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d)A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4Which of the following requirements is testable?
a)The system shall be user friendly.
b)The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c)The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d)The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a)3
b)4
c)5
d)6
6Error guessing:
a)supplements formal test design techniques.
b)can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c)is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d)is not repeatable and should not be used.
7Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a)Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b)A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c)A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d)Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a)find as many faults as possible.
b)test high risk areas.
c)obtain good test coverage.
d)test whatever is easiest to test.
9Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a)v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b)v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c)v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d)v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a)System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b)Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c)Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d)End-users should be involved in system tests.
11Which of the following is false?
a)Incidents should always be fixed.
b)An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c)Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d)An incident can be raised against documentation.
12Enough testing has been performed when:
a)time runs out.
b)the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c)no more faults are found.
d)the users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a)Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b)Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c)Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d)Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a)syntax testing
b)equivalence partitioning
c)stress testing
d)modified condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a)In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b)A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c)A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d)Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a)They are used to support multi-user testing.
b)They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c)They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d)They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a)Metrics from previous similar projects
b)Discussions with the development team
c)Time allocated for regression testing
d)a & b
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a)It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b)It only models the testing phase.
c)It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d)It includes the verification of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a)is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b)is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c)is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d)is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a)They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b)They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c)Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d)Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a)To find faults in the software.
b)To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c)To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d)To prove that the software is correct.
22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a)Boundary value analysis
b)Usability testing
c)Performance testing
d)Security testing
23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a)Features to be tested
b)Incident reports
c)Risks
d)Schedule
24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a)Test management
b)Test design
c)Test execution
d)Test planning
25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a)Statement testing
b)Path testing
c)Data flow testing
d)State transition testing
26 Data flow analysis studies:
a)possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b)the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c)the use of data on paths through the code.
d)the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)£1500
b)£32001
c)£33501
d)£28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a)enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b)can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c)can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d)are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a)Actual results
b)Program specification
c)User requirements
d)System specification
30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a)An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b)An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c)Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d)A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a)It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b)It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c)It reduces defect multiplication.
d)It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a)tests the individual components that have been developed.
b)tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c)only uses components that form part of the live system.
d)tests interfaces to other systems.
33Static analysis is best described as:
a)the analysis of batch programs.
b)the reviewing of test plans.
c)the analysis of program code.
d)the use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a)post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b)the first testing that is performed.
c)pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d)pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a)found in the software; the result of an error.
b)departure from specified behaviour.
c)an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d)a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a)£4800; £14000; £28000
b)£5200; £5500; £28000
c)£28001; £32000; £35000
d)£5800; £28000; £32000
37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a)makes test preparation easier.
b)means inspections are not required.
c)can prevent fault multiplication.
d)will find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a)Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b)Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c)eviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d)Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39Test cases are designed during:
a)test recording.
b)test planning.
c)test configuration.
d)test specification.
40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a)linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b)facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c)the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d)restricted access to the source code library.
Question number Correct answer
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
Thursday, June 10, 2010
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 4
Q1A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:
a)an error
b)a fault
c)a failure
d)a defect
Q2Regression testing should be performed:
v)every week
w)after the software has changed
x)as often as possible
y)when the environment has changed
z)when the project manager says
a)v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b)w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c)w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d)w is true, v, x, y & z are false
Q3IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a)test items
b)test deliverables
c)test tasks
d)test specifications
Q4When should testing be stopped?
a)when all the planned tests have been run
b)when time has run out
c)when all faults have been fixed correctly
d)it depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q5Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
a)1000, 50000, 99999
b)9999, 50000, 100000
c)10000, 50000, 99999
d)10000, 99999, 100000
Q6Consider the following statements about early test design:
i.early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii.faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii.early test design can find faults
iv.early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v.early test design normally takes more effort
a)i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b)iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c)i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d)i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
Q7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a)testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b)testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c)testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d)testing for functions that should not exist
Q8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a)auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b)status accounting of configuration items
c)identification of test versions
d)controlled library access
Q9Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a)to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b)to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c)to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d)to specify how the software should be divided into modules
Q10 What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a)to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b)to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c)to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d)to determine when to stop testing
Q11 Consider the following statements:
i.an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii.incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii.the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv.the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a)ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b)i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c)i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d)i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
Q12Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
a)1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b)1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c)1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d)2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q13 Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a)ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b)i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c)ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d)ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q14 Functional system testing is:
a)testing that the system functions with other systems
b)testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c)testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d)testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q15Incidents would not be raised against:
a)requirements
b)documentation
c)test cases
d)improvements suggested by users
Q16 Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a)operating systems
b)test documentation
c)live data
d)user requirement documents
Q17 Maintenance testing is:
a)updating tests when the software has changed
b)testing a released system that has been changed
c)testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d)testing to maintain business advantage
Q18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a)the use of a variable before it has been defined
b)unreachable (“dead”) code
c)memory leaks
d)array bound violations
Q19 Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a)state transition testing
b)LCSAJ
c)syntax testing
d)boundary value analysis
Q20 Beta testing is:
a)performed by customers at their own site
b)performed by customers at the software developer's site
c)performed by an Independent Test Team
d)performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?
i.static analysis
ii.performance testing
iii.test management
iv.dynamic analysis
a)developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b)developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c)developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d)developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
Q22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a)finding faults in the system
b)ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c)testing the system with other systems
d)testing from a business perspective
Q23 Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a)black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b)white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c)cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d)black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
Q24 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a)inspection is the most formal review process
b)inspections should be led by a trained leader
c)managers can perform inspections on management documents
d)inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
Q25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)calculating expected outputs
b)comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c)recording test inputs
d)reading test values from a data file
Q26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a)re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b)re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c)re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d)re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
Q27 Expected results are:
a)only important in system testing
b)only used in component testing
c)most useful when specified in advance
d)derived from the code
Q28 What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a)walkthrough
b)inspection
c)management review
d)post project review
Q29 Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a)component testing
b)non-functional system testing
c)user acceptance testing
d)maintenance testing
Q30 What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a)setting up forms and databases
b)analysing metrics and improving processes
c)writing the documents to be inspected
d)time spent on the document outside the meeting
Q31 Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)to find faults in the software
b)to prove that the software has no faults
c)to give confidence in the software
d)to find performance problems
Q32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
1.led by the author
2.undocumented
3.no management participation
4.led by a moderator or leader
5.uses entry and exit criteria
s)inspection
t)peer review
u)informal review
v)walkthrough
a)s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b)s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c)s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d)s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
Q33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)business process-based testing
b)performance, load and stress testing
c)usability testing
d)top-down integration testing
Q34 Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a)expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b)expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c)expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d)expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
Q35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)ISO/IEC 12207
b)BS 7925-1
c)ANSI/IEEE 829
d)ANSI/IEEE 729
Q36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a)is not important
b)increases the later a fault is found
c)decreases the later a fault is found
d)can never be determined
Q37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?
a)what is not to be tested
b)test environment properties
c)quality plans
d)schedules and deadlines
Q38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a)no, because they apply to development documentation
b)no, because they are normally applied before testing
c)yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d)yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
Q39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a)measuring response times
b)recovery testing
c)simulating many users
d)generating many transactions
Q40 Error guessing is best used:
a)after more formal techniques have been applied
b)as the first approach to deriving test cases
c)by inexperienced testers
d)after the system has gone live
Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 A
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 B
40 A
a)an error
b)a fault
c)a failure
d)a defect
Q2Regression testing should be performed:
v)every week
w)after the software has changed
x)as often as possible
y)when the environment has changed
z)when the project manager says
a)v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b)w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c)w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d)w is true, v, x, y & z are false
Q3IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a)test items
b)test deliverables
c)test tasks
d)test specifications
Q4When should testing be stopped?
a)when all the planned tests have been run
b)when time has run out
c)when all faults have been fixed correctly
d)it depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q5Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
a)1000, 50000, 99999
b)9999, 50000, 100000
c)10000, 50000, 99999
d)10000, 99999, 100000
Q6Consider the following statements about early test design:
i.early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii.faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii.early test design can find faults
iv.early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v.early test design normally takes more effort
a)i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b)iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c)i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d)i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
Q7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a)testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b)testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c)testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d)testing for functions that should not exist
Q8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a)auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b)status accounting of configuration items
c)identification of test versions
d)controlled library access
Q9Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a)to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b)to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c)to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d)to specify how the software should be divided into modules
Q10 What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a)to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b)to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c)to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d)to determine when to stop testing
Q11 Consider the following statements:
i.an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii.incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii.the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv.the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a)ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b)i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c)i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d)i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
Q12Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
a)1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b)1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c)1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d)2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q13 Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a)ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b)i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c)ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d)ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q14 Functional system testing is:
a)testing that the system functions with other systems
b)testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c)testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d)testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q15Incidents would not be raised against:
a)requirements
b)documentation
c)test cases
d)improvements suggested by users
Q16 Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a)operating systems
b)test documentation
c)live data
d)user requirement documents
Q17 Maintenance testing is:
a)updating tests when the software has changed
b)testing a released system that has been changed
c)testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d)testing to maintain business advantage
Q18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a)the use of a variable before it has been defined
b)unreachable (“dead”) code
c)memory leaks
d)array bound violations
Q19 Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a)state transition testing
b)LCSAJ
c)syntax testing
d)boundary value analysis
Q20 Beta testing is:
a)performed by customers at their own site
b)performed by customers at the software developer's site
c)performed by an Independent Test Team
d)performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?
i.static analysis
ii.performance testing
iii.test management
iv.dynamic analysis
a)developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b)developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c)developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d)developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
Q22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a)finding faults in the system
b)ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c)testing the system with other systems
d)testing from a business perspective
Q23 Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a)black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b)white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c)cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d)black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
Q24 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a)inspection is the most formal review process
b)inspections should be led by a trained leader
c)managers can perform inspections on management documents
d)inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
Q25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)calculating expected outputs
b)comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c)recording test inputs
d)reading test values from a data file
Q26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a)re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b)re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c)re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d)re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
Q27 Expected results are:
a)only important in system testing
b)only used in component testing
c)most useful when specified in advance
d)derived from the code
Q28 What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a)walkthrough
b)inspection
c)management review
d)post project review
Q29 Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a)component testing
b)non-functional system testing
c)user acceptance testing
d)maintenance testing
Q30 What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a)setting up forms and databases
b)analysing metrics and improving processes
c)writing the documents to be inspected
d)time spent on the document outside the meeting
Q31 Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)to find faults in the software
b)to prove that the software has no faults
c)to give confidence in the software
d)to find performance problems
Q32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
1.led by the author
2.undocumented
3.no management participation
4.led by a moderator or leader
5.uses entry and exit criteria
s)inspection
t)peer review
u)informal review
v)walkthrough
a)s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b)s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c)s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d)s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
Q33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)business process-based testing
b)performance, load and stress testing
c)usability testing
d)top-down integration testing
Q34 Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a)expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b)expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c)expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d)expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
Q35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)ISO/IEC 12207
b)BS 7925-1
c)ANSI/IEEE 829
d)ANSI/IEEE 729
Q36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a)is not important
b)increases the later a fault is found
c)decreases the later a fault is found
d)can never be determined
Q37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?
a)what is not to be tested
b)test environment properties
c)quality plans
d)schedules and deadlines
Q38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a)no, because they apply to development documentation
b)no, because they are normally applied before testing
c)yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d)yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
Q39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a)measuring response times
b)recovery testing
c)simulating many users
d)generating many transactions
Q40 Error guessing is best used:
a)after more formal techniques have been applied
b)as the first approach to deriving test cases
c)by inexperienced testers
d)after the system has gone live
Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 A
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 B
40 A
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 3
1.The _____ method is the classic approach to project management, especially to the management of large projects.
a.agile
b.waterfall
c.code and fix
d.iterative/evolutionary
2.…life-cycle models can be considered evolutionary or incremental in the sense that a given release grows up around a core of features that are delivered, often on dynamic dates.
a.True
b.False
3.Testing throughout the project in a three-dimensional sense refers to the following dimensions:
a.Time, Resources, and Risk
b.Verification, Validation, and Defect Reporting
c.Time, Organizational, and Cultural
d.None of the above
4.What are appraisal costs?
a.All testing costs and the costs of everything else the company does to look for errors.
b.Everything the company spends to prevent software and documentation errors.
c.All costs of coping with errors discovered during development and testing.
d.All costs of coping with errors discovered, typically by your customers, after the product is released.
5.The _____ starts testing during the “Fragments Coded: first functionality” development stage?
a.programmer
b.end user
c.tester, programmer’s assistant, someone
d.A & C
6.During the component or subsystem testing, testers focus on bugs in constituent pieces of the system.
a.True
b.False
7.Select a reason that does not support the idea of incremental testing:
a.It is easier to pin down the cause of an error.
b.The programmer can see internal boundaries in the code that are completely invisible to the outside tester.
c.Testing of only one module, any errors are either in that module or in a simple program wrote to test it.
d.The programmer focuses on each module individually, which yields to better test coverage.
8.Integration testing:
a.involves testers look for various types of bugs in the entire system, fully integrated.
b.involves testers looking for bugs in the relationships and interfaces between pairs and components of groups of components in the system under test.
c.occurs often in a staged fashion.
d.B & C
e.A & B
9.System testing tends toward the _____ area of the testing spectrum.
a.behavioral
b.functional
c.performance
d.reliable
10. A test run during System Testing is:
a.Error recovery.
b.Terminal handling.
c.Installation.
d.Keyboard handling.
11.Acceptance testing is:
a.validating end-to-end functionality based upon requirements.
b.checking whether the software is stable enough to be tested.
c.testing usability of the systems interfaces.
d.None of the above.
12.Acceptance testing is the demonstration that a system meets requirements.
a.True
b.False
13.Which is not indicative of Black Box testing?
a.Performed by the testing group
b.Identifies how previous fixes have caused side effects.
c.Identifies how previous fixes failed.
d.Fails to identify masked bugs because it skips regression testing.
14.Functional tests are:
a.sometimes has the same meaning as behavioral tests.
b.simultaneously designing, developing, and executing tests.
c.must be augmented with other test approaches to deal with potentially important quality risks such as performance, load, capacity, and volume.
d.A & C.
15. The difference between volume tests and stress tests is:
a.Testing the audio components of an application vs. testing the breaking point of the system under load.
b.The study of the program’s ability to deal with the largest task vs. the study of the program’s response to peak bursts of activity.
c.The ability of a system to sustain load vs. the ability of a system to handle imported fields a large size.
d.None of the Above
16. Structural testing is not:
a.glass box testing.
b.proper selection of program or subprogram paths.
c.feeding the component input and examining the output.
d.exercised during the battery of tests.
17.As a result of a change in the system under test, a new revision of the system, Sn+1, contains a defect not present in revision Sn, the quality of the system is has progressed:
a.True
b.False
18.In order to reduce the time needed for regression testing you can apply the following method(s):
a.Automate if you can.
b.Combine test cases.
c.Designate some tests for periodic testing.
d.Narrow focus of your testing scope.
19. Maintenance testing of the retirement of a system may include:
a.Operations tests of the changed software.
b.The testing of data migration.
c.Archiving if long data-retention periods are required.
d.B or C.
20.Acceptance testing may occur at more than just a single test level. With the exception of:
a.A COTS software product may be acceptance tested when it is installed or integrated.
b.Acceptance testing of the usability of a component may be done during component testing.
c.Acceptance testing after a change has been released to the user community.
d.Acceptance testing of a new functional enhancement may come before system testing.
a.agile
b.waterfall
c.code and fix
d.iterative/evolutionary
2.…life-cycle models can be considered evolutionary or incremental in the sense that a given release grows up around a core of features that are delivered, often on dynamic dates.
a.True
b.False
3.Testing throughout the project in a three-dimensional sense refers to the following dimensions:
a.Time, Resources, and Risk
b.Verification, Validation, and Defect Reporting
c.Time, Organizational, and Cultural
d.None of the above
4.What are appraisal costs?
a.All testing costs and the costs of everything else the company does to look for errors.
b.Everything the company spends to prevent software and documentation errors.
c.All costs of coping with errors discovered during development and testing.
d.All costs of coping with errors discovered, typically by your customers, after the product is released.
5.The _____ starts testing during the “Fragments Coded: first functionality” development stage?
a.programmer
b.end user
c.tester, programmer’s assistant, someone
d.A & C
6.During the component or subsystem testing, testers focus on bugs in constituent pieces of the system.
a.True
b.False
7.Select a reason that does not support the idea of incremental testing:
a.It is easier to pin down the cause of an error.
b.The programmer can see internal boundaries in the code that are completely invisible to the outside tester.
c.Testing of only one module, any errors are either in that module or in a simple program wrote to test it.
d.The programmer focuses on each module individually, which yields to better test coverage.
8.Integration testing:
a.involves testers look for various types of bugs in the entire system, fully integrated.
b.involves testers looking for bugs in the relationships and interfaces between pairs and components of groups of components in the system under test.
c.occurs often in a staged fashion.
d.B & C
e.A & B
9.System testing tends toward the _____ area of the testing spectrum.
a.behavioral
b.functional
c.performance
d.reliable
10. A test run during System Testing is:
a.Error recovery.
b.Terminal handling.
c.Installation.
d.Keyboard handling.
11.Acceptance testing is:
a.validating end-to-end functionality based upon requirements.
b.checking whether the software is stable enough to be tested.
c.testing usability of the systems interfaces.
d.None of the above.
12.Acceptance testing is the demonstration that a system meets requirements.
a.True
b.False
13.Which is not indicative of Black Box testing?
a.Performed by the testing group
b.Identifies how previous fixes have caused side effects.
c.Identifies how previous fixes failed.
d.Fails to identify masked bugs because it skips regression testing.
14.Functional tests are:
a.sometimes has the same meaning as behavioral tests.
b.simultaneously designing, developing, and executing tests.
c.must be augmented with other test approaches to deal with potentially important quality risks such as performance, load, capacity, and volume.
d.A & C.
15. The difference between volume tests and stress tests is:
a.Testing the audio components of an application vs. testing the breaking point of the system under load.
b.The study of the program’s ability to deal with the largest task vs. the study of the program’s response to peak bursts of activity.
c.The ability of a system to sustain load vs. the ability of a system to handle imported fields a large size.
d.None of the Above
16. Structural testing is not:
a.glass box testing.
b.proper selection of program or subprogram paths.
c.feeding the component input and examining the output.
d.exercised during the battery of tests.
17.As a result of a change in the system under test, a new revision of the system, Sn+1, contains a defect not present in revision Sn, the quality of the system is has progressed:
a.True
b.False
18.In order to reduce the time needed for regression testing you can apply the following method(s):
a.Automate if you can.
b.Combine test cases.
c.Designate some tests for periodic testing.
d.Narrow focus of your testing scope.
19. Maintenance testing of the retirement of a system may include:
a.Operations tests of the changed software.
b.The testing of data migration.
c.Archiving if long data-retention periods are required.
d.B or C.
20.Acceptance testing may occur at more than just a single test level. With the exception of:
a.A COTS software product may be acceptance tested when it is installed or integrated.
b.Acceptance testing of the usability of a component may be done during component testing.
c.Acceptance testing after a change has been released to the user community.
d.Acceptance testing of a new functional enhancement may come before system testing.
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 2
1.An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
a.0,1900,2004,2005
b.1900, 2004
c.1899,1900,2004,2005
d.1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
2.Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a.System testing
b.Usability testing
c.Performance testing
d.Both b & c
3.Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a.Data tester
b.Boundary tester
c.Capture/Playback
d.Output comparator.
4.Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a.Statement Coverage
b.Pole Coverage
c.Condition Coverage
d.Path Coverage
5.Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a.Functionality
b.Usability
c.Supportability
d.Maintainability
6.To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a.Stub
b.Driver
c.Proxy
d.None of the above
7.Boundary value testing
a.Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b.Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c.Tests combinations of input circumstances
d.Is used in white box testing strategy
8.Pick the best definition of quality
a.Quality is job one
b.Zero defects
c.Conformance to requirements
d.Work as designed
9.Fault Masking is
a.Error condition hiding another error condition
b.Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c.Masking a fault by developer
d.Masking a fault by a tester
10.One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a.Lack of technical documentation
b.Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c.Lack of training
d.Lack of Objectivity
11.During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a.When the code is complete.
b.When the design is complete.
c.When the software requirements have been approved.
d.When the first code module is ready for unit testing
12.In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a.Takes minutes of the meeting
b.Mediates between people
c.Takes telephone calls
d.Writes the documents to be reviewed
13.Given the Following program
IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a.2
b.3
c.4
d.5
14.How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a.Test Cases
b.3 Test Cases
c.4 Test Cases
d.Not achievable
15.Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a.Requirements
b.Design
c.Code
d.Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a.This question is impossible to answer
b.This question is easy to answer
c.The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d.This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a.Statement and branch testing
b.Usability testing
c.Security testing
d.Performance testing
18.Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a.Missing Statements
b.Unused Branches
c.Dead Code
d.Unused Statement
19.Independent Verification & Validation is
a.Done by the Developer
b.Done by the Test Engineers
c.Done By Management
d.Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20.Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a.Defects
b.Trends analysis
c.Test Effectiveness
d.Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c
The boundary values for testing this field are
a.0,1900,2004,2005
b.1900, 2004
c.1899,1900,2004,2005
d.1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
2.Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a.System testing
b.Usability testing
c.Performance testing
d.Both b & c
3.Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a.Data tester
b.Boundary tester
c.Capture/Playback
d.Output comparator.
4.Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a.Statement Coverage
b.Pole Coverage
c.Condition Coverage
d.Path Coverage
5.Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a.Functionality
b.Usability
c.Supportability
d.Maintainability
6.To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a.Stub
b.Driver
c.Proxy
d.None of the above
7.Boundary value testing
a.Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b.Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c.Tests combinations of input circumstances
d.Is used in white box testing strategy
8.Pick the best definition of quality
a.Quality is job one
b.Zero defects
c.Conformance to requirements
d.Work as designed
9.Fault Masking is
a.Error condition hiding another error condition
b.Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c.Masking a fault by developer
d.Masking a fault by a tester
10.One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a.Lack of technical documentation
b.Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c.Lack of training
d.Lack of Objectivity
11.During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a.When the code is complete.
b.When the design is complete.
c.When the software requirements have been approved.
d.When the first code module is ready for unit testing
12.In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a.Takes minutes of the meeting
b.Mediates between people
c.Takes telephone calls
d.Writes the documents to be reviewed
13.Given the Following program
IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a.2
b.3
c.4
d.5
14.How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a.Test Cases
b.3 Test Cases
c.4 Test Cases
d.Not achievable
15.Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a.Requirements
b.Design
c.Code
d.Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a.This question is impossible to answer
b.This question is easy to answer
c.The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d.This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a.Statement and branch testing
b.Usability testing
c.Security testing
d.Performance testing
18.Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a.Missing Statements
b.Unused Branches
c.Dead Code
d.Unused Statement
19.Independent Verification & Validation is
a.Done by the Developer
b.Done by the Test Engineers
c.Done By Management
d.Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20.Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a.Defects
b.Trends analysis
c.Test Effectiveness
d.Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c
ISTQB Foundation Level Paper 1
1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30.Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
ANSWERS:
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30.Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
ANSWERS:
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
Blogger Buzz: Blogger integrates with Amazon Associates
Blogger Buzz: Blogger integrates with Amazon Associates:
This will tell about mobile application testing and Software Testing Certification
This will tell about mobile application testing and Software Testing Certification
How To Upgrade Newer version of OS on Blackberry Device:
1. Backup your device with Desktop Manager
2. Backup your third party applications
3. Download the desired device OS
4. Install the OS to your PC (run the .exe file)
5. Connect the device
6. Select desired OS from available list
7. Optimize the OS to your liking (Memory Optimization Procedure)
8. Load the OS with AppLoader (using DesktopManager)
9. Wipe your handheld
10. Restore Third Party Apps
11. Restore from Backup in Step#1
About Blackberry Device Application Testing
Black Berry Devices:
Handheld Wiping:
• How do we hard reset the device or clean the device including third party application?
• Go to : Options -> Security Options -> General Settings -> Open Menu -> Select ‘Wipe Handheld’
Network Configuration:
How do we enable the Mobile networks after hard resetting the device?
1. If the SIM is GPRS enabled:
-- Open Menu -> Go to ‘Manage Connections’ -> Check out the Check box for Mobile Network
2. If Blue tooth is to be connected:
- - Open Menu -> Go to ‘Manage Connections’ -> Check out the Check box for Blue tooth
Note: For Blue tooth connection, we need to be paired up the device
3. If Wi-Fi is to be connected:
- - Open Menu -> Go to ‘Manage Connections’ -> Check out the Checkbox for Wi-Fi connection
Note: For Wi-Fi connection needs to search the available networks and then put the credential details to get connected
4. Networks enabling
Application installation via desktop:
Installing any builds/applications through desktop should require following things:
1. Builds should be in .alx format
2. Desktop software should be installed on your machine
3. Connect the USB cable to the system
4. Launch desktop manager
5. Click on Application loader
6. Will get the application loader Wizard:
7. Locate the build and add it to be downloaded on the device
Application installation via OTA:
Following things to be done for downloading any builds through Over the Air Installation:
1. Enable the Network : Mobile / Wi-Fi / Bluetooth
2. Launch the WAP browser
3. Put the URL ( This is the location where the build is deployed)
4. Then enter
5. There after build will be downloaded to the device
Accessing device main memory:
How do we access the device main memory :
Go to : Options > Status
Killing device main memory value:
How do we kill the device main memory to get the application downloaded at low memory conditions ?
1. Connect USB cable
2. Launch desktop software
3. Click on Media Manager
Killing micro SD memory card value:
How do we access the micro SD card memory?
1. Connect the USB Cable
2. Go to My Computer
3. Additional drive will appear there
4. Open this additional removable drive (E:) and start accessing the memory
Deleting application from device:
How can we delete the application from device?
Go to : Options > Advanced Options > Applications >
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